100 Questions • 90 Minutes • 2025 Mock Test in Hindi and English
• Key Fact: India emerged as the champions of the mixed team Squash World Cup in December 2025 by defeating top-seeded Hong Kong 3-0 in the final.
• Supporting Detail: The tournament showcased a stellar performance by the Indian contingent, cementing their status in global squash.
• Related Concept: The mixed team Squash World Cup format involves teams comprising both male and female players competing in a series of matches.
• Why others wrong: England, Australia, and Egypt are traditional squash powerhouses, but India specifically secured this 2025 victory against Hong Kong.
• Exam Trick: When a question specifies a 'dominant 3-0 triumph' over 'Hong Kong' in 'Squash World Cup 2025', remember India's historic win.
• Additional Info: The victory marks a significant milestone for Indian squash on the international stage.
• Key Fact: The Mir Bakshi was the head of the military department and the Commander of the entire military under the Mughal Emperor.
• Supporting Detail: He was responsible for intelligence gathering, making recommendations for appointments to Mansabs (military ranks), and ensuring the smooth functioning of the army.
• Related Concept: The Mansabdari system was the core administrative and military framework of the Mughal Empire, and the Mir Bakshi was its primary overseer.
• Why others wrong: Mir Saman was the officer in charge of the royal household (Karkhanas). Diwan-i-Insha was the head of the royal correspondence department. Sadr-us-Sudur was the head of religious endowments and charities.
• Exam Trick: Associate 'Bakshi' with 'Baksheesh' (payment/salary) for soldiers, linking him directly to military administration.
• Additional Info: The Mir Bakshi also stood on the right side of the Emperor during the Darbar (royal court), highlighting his extreme importance.
• Given conditions: We need to find the odd pair among NP-RT, KM-OQ, IK-MO, and CE-HJ based on alphabetical shifts.
• Deduction process:
Let's check the forward shifts between the first letters and second letters of each pair.
Option A (NP-RT): N(14) R(18) is . P(16) T(20) is .
Option B (KM-OQ): K(11) O(15) is . M(13) Q(17) is .
Option C (IK-MO): I(9) M(13) is . K(11) O(15) is .
Option D (CE-HJ): C(3) H(8) is . E(5) J(10) is .
Options A, B, and C strictly follow a shift pattern between the corresponding letters. Option D follows a pattern.
Therefore, CE-HJ is the odd one out.
• Additional Concept: Always translate letters to their numerical positions (A=1, B=2...) to quickly spot consistent arithmetic differences.
• Exam Trick: Quickly scan the gaps. N to R (opq = 3 skipped). K to O (lmn = 3 skipped). I to M (jkl = 3 skipped). C to H (defg = 4 skipped). D is instantly odd.
• Final Answer: CE-HJ
• Given: Ratio of boys to girls in Section A = Ratio of boys to girls in Section B. Section A: 36 boys, 24 girls. Section B: 28 girls. We need to find the number of boys in Section B.
• Basic Method (Solution):
Step 1: Find the ratio of boys to girls in Section A.
Ratio .
Step 2: Simplify the ratio by dividing both numbers by their greatest common divisor (12).
Ratio .
Step 3: Let the number of boys in Section B be .
The ratio in Section B is .
Step 4: Equate the two ratios since they are given to be the same.
Step 5: Solve for by cross-multiplying.
.
• Shortcut Method: The number of girls went from 24 (in A) to 28 (in B). The multiplier is . So, the number of boys must also be multiplied by the same factor: .
• Final Answer: 42
• Given: The mathematical expression is .
• Basic Method (Solution):
Step 1: Apply the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction) to determine the correct order of operations.
Step 2: Perform the Division first.
.
The expression becomes: .
Step 3: Perform the Multiplication next.
.
The expression becomes: .
Step 4: Perform Addition and Subtraction from left to right.
.
• Shortcut Method: Quickly identify the operational blocks. Division is one block: . Multiplication is another: . Write it out mentally as . Sum of all negatives: .
• Final Answer: -49
• Given conditions: Set 1: . Set 2: .
• Deduction process:
Step 1: Analyze the operations in the first set: 14, 196, 186, 166.
: We know . The operation is .
: The difference is . The operation is .
: The difference is . The operation is .
The sequence of operations is: Square the number, then subtract 10, then subtract 20.
Step 2: Verify this logic with the second set: 18, 324, 314, 294.
.
.
.
The pattern perfectly holds.
Step 3: Test the given options with this sequence of operations.
Option A (21 - 441 - 431 - 451): . . . Incorrect.
Option B (16 - 256 - 266 - 246): . . Incorrect.
Option C (18 - 320 - ...): . Incorrect.
Option D (11 - 121 - 111 - 91): . . . This matches perfectly!
• Additional Concept: Number series with drastic jumps initially and small drops later usually involve squaring/cubing followed by simple subtractions.
• Exam Trick: 14 to 196 is clearly a square. Check the options. . Then check the differences. . . . . Option D is confirmed in under 10 seconds.
• Final Answer: 11 - 121 - 111 - 91
• Given conditions: 7 boxes (Top=1, Bottom=7). Only B is above C. Only E is between C and F. Only A is below G.
• Deduction process:
Step 1: 'Only B is kept above C'. This restricts C to the second position from the top (Position 2), and B to the topmost position (Position 1).
Step 2: 'Only E is kept between C and F'. Since C is at Position 2, E must be at Position 3 and F must be at Position 4 to maintain this sequence downwards (C-E-F).
Step 3: 'Only A is kept below G'. This implies G is at the second position from the bottom (Position 6), and strictly only A is below it, making A the bottom-most box (Position 7).
Step 4: The only remaining box is D, which must take the remaining empty spot at Position 5.
Final arrangement (Top to Bottom): 1:B, 2:C, 3:E, 4:F, 5:D, 6:G, 7:A.
Step 5: The question asks how many boxes are kept between C (Position 2) and G (Position 6).
Between positions 2 and 6, there are 3 positions (3, 4, 5) occupied by boxes E, F, and D respectively.
Therefore, there are 3 boxes between C and G.
• Additional Concept: Absolute phrasing like "Only X is above Y" immediately locks variables into extreme positions (topmost or bottom-most edges).
• Final Answer: 3
• Key Fact: Rainfall (annual precipitation) is the most critical and dominant climatic factor determining the type and distribution of natural vegetation in India.
• Supporting Detail: Areas with heavy rainfall (over 200-250 cm), like the Western Ghats and North-East India, have tropical evergreen forests. Moderate rainfall areas have deciduous forests, and sparse rainfall areas feature thorny bushes and deserts.
• Related Concept: While temperature is also important, it is the variation in precipitation that creates the vast spectrum of vegetation from tropical rainforests to desert scrub across the subcontinent.
• Why others wrong: Altitudinal gradient is important specifically in the Himalayas (montane forests) but not uniformly across the whole country. Soil quality determines specific crop/plant health but does not dictate broad biome types. Temperature is relatively uniform across the plains; rainfall dictates the primary differences.
• Exam Trick: When asked about India's vegetation zones (Evergreen, Deciduous, Desert), always attribute the boundaries primarily to the amount of rainfall received.
• Additional Info: Tropical deciduous forests are the most widespread type of forest in India, covering areas receiving 70 cm to 200 cm of rainfall.
• Key Fact: Most fungi and some algae exhibit a haploid-dominant life cycle, meaning the 'body' of the organism consists of haploid cells for the majority of its life.
• Supporting Detail: In this life cycle, the only diploid phase is the single-celled zygote, which undergoes meiosis almost immediately to produce haploid spores that grow into new haploid organisms.
• Related Concept: Mammals and amphibians exhibit a diploid-dominant life cycle (only the gametes are haploid). Angiosperms (flowering plants) exhibit an alternation of generations, but the diploid sporophyte stage is highly dominant.
• Why others wrong: Amphibians, mammals, and angiosperms spend the vast majority of their life cycle in the diploid (2n) state.
• Exam Trick: Remember: Fungi = Fungi are 'half' (Haploid). Animals = 'Double' (Diploid).
• Additional Info: In fungi, the haploid structures are called hyphae, which mass together to form a mycelium.
• Key Fact: When the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) sells US dollars from its foreign exchange reserves, it increases the supply of dollars in the domestic market while absorbing Rupees, leading to the appreciation of the Rupee against the dollar.
• Supporting Detail: Central banks use dollar sales as a primary intervention tool in the forex market to arrest rapid depreciation and stabilize the domestic currency.
• Related Concept: Conversely, if the RBI buys dollars, it increases the supply of Rupees, causing the Rupee to depreciate.
• Why others wrong: While an interest rate hike can attract foreign capital (appreciating the rupee indirectly), "dollar sales" is the most direct and immediate open market operation for currency appreciation. High gold imports widen the current account deficit, depreciating the rupee. Bond purchases (Open Market Operations) inject rupee liquidity, potentially depreciating the currency.
• Exam Trick: RBI sells Dollars -> Dollar supply goes UP, Rupee supply goes DOWN -> Dollar becomes cheaper, Rupee becomes stronger (Appreciates).
• Additional Info: The RBI maintains vast foreign exchange reserves to cushion the economy against external shocks and manage excessive currency volatility.
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